Domande esame Molecular and cell pathology

D) Upregulated by endothelial cells during inflammation

2. MHC A) Generates chemotactic factor for T cells

B) Presents antigens to T cells

C) Is formed to plasma proteins, which help to kill microbes

D) Presents antigens to B cells

E) Is formed by antibodies

3. Glutathione peroxidase:

A) Transforms superoxide anion in water

B) Transforms hydrogen peroxide in water

C) Converts superoxide anion in OH-

4. B-cells:

A) Requires dendritic cells for their activation

B) Requires CD4+ cells for their activation

C) Recognize antigen presented by the MHC

D) Are key activators of NK cells

E) Are short lived

5. Vagus nerve stimulation:

A) Induces the switch from M2 to M1 macrophages

B) Activates immune system cells

C) Contributes to systemic fibrosis

D) Inhibits inflammation

6. Integrin-mediated leukocytes adhesion:

A) Is induced by activating factors such as chemokines

B) Involves low affinity interactions and mucin ligands

C) Is a phenomenon involved predominantly during chronic inflammation

D) Is due to inhibition of intracellular signaling pathways

7. Tissue factor:

A) Activates plasmin and factor IX of the coagulation pathway

B) Activates the formation of fibrinogen-fibrin complex

C) Is involved in complement activation

D) Initiates the extrinsic coagulation pathway

8. IgE binding to its receptor (FceRI) on the surface of mast cells:

A) Blocks eosinophil activation

B) Induces release of histamine

C) Blocks the release of lipid mediators

D) Induces degranulation after antigen binding

9. Metaplasia represents

A) An irreversible alteration in which an adult tumor cells is replaced by another tumor cells

B) An alteration of cell proliferation with reduction of cellular damage

C) An irreversible alteration in which a mesenchymal adult cell is replaced by the epithelial adult

cell

D) Process which can be a consequence of chronic inflammation

10. Eosinophils:

A) Releases histamine

B) Generate anaphylatoxin

C) Produce major basic protein and kill helminths

D) Are involved in Type II hypersensitivity reactions

11. Cell-mediated immunity

A) Involves B cells and antibodies

B) Involves complement and NK cells

C) Is mediated by neutrophils and eosinophils

D) Is mediated by T cells

12. Annexin-1

A) Promotes neutrophil migration

B) Induces the resolution of inflammation

C) Is involved in macrophage activation

D) Reduces the production of pro-resolving mediators

13. The function of dendritic cells:

A. Is blocked by regulatory T cells

B. Is blocked by IL-6

C. Is required for neutrophils transmigration in lymph nodes

D. Is blocked by IFNg

14. Degradation of fibrin through the fibrinolytic system requires:

A. Plasminogen activator inhibitors

B. Trombomodulin

C. Plasminogen activators

D. Alpha 1-antitrypsn

15. Haber-Weiss reaction:

A. Is very rapid

B. Does not include Fenton reaction

C. Generates superoxide radicals

D. Is catalyzed by iron

E. Generates hydroxyl radicals

16. The role of kinins include:

A. A dysregulation of venous pressure, blockade of leukocyte functions

B. A primary hemostasis, bronchoconstriction, vasodilatation, chemotaxis

C. Chemotaxis, vasodilation, pain, leukocyte activation

D. Secondary hemostasis, increased vascular permeability, activation of complement

17. Histamine:

A. Is produced by lymphocytes and monocytes

B. Provokes vasoconstriction

C. Is produced following trauma and rapid hypersensitivity reaction

D. Is a lipid mediator of inflammation

E. Is produced by pulmonary macrophages

18. Anti-thrombin III

A. Is a serine protease inhibitor

B. Blocks thrombomodulin

C. Degrades tissue factor

D. Its action is blocked by heparin

E. Degrades fibrin

19. Fibrinoid necrosis is due to:

A. A denaturation of structural proteins

B. Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels wall

C. Inflammation activation in leukocytes

D. Enzymatic digestion of cells

E. Myocardial infarction

20. Bernard-Soulier syndrome is characterized by:

A. Congenital defect of cyclo-oxygenises

B. Alteration of gpIIbIIIa genes

C. Alterations of gpIb gene

D. Altered granule biogenesis

E. Alteration of von Willebrand factor

21. Tumor stroma represents:

A. A neoplastic connective tissue and blood vessels

B. Transformed neoplastic cells

C. Non-neoplastic connective tissue and blood vessels

22. The increase of intracellular Ca++ following injury leads to

A. Activation of phospolipases and reduction of membrane phospholipids

B. Reduction of endonuclease activity and chromatin damage

C. Reduction of protease activity and damage to cytoskeleton and cellular membrane

D. Increase of intracellular ATP

23. Pyroptosis is characterized by:

A. Engagement of TNF receptors and increase of TNF production

B. Inflammasome activation and fever

C. Incurrence during ischemia and infections

D. Production of NETs

24. The receptor for FC portion of Ig (FCR):

A. Mediates the transition from M1 to M2 macrophages

B. Mediates phagocytosis

C. Is fundamental for immunoglobulin production

D. Mediates T cell cytotoxicity

25. Dysplasia is:

A. A type of neoplasia

B. An alteration of cell size and number

C. A type of chronic inflammation

D. An alteration of cell differentiation

26. Innate immunity includes:

A. Cells expressing TCR

B. B cells and antibodies

C. Phagocytes and complement system

D. CD4 and CD8 T cells

27. Type II hypersensibility is due to:

A. A production of IgE against foreign antigens

B. Autoreactive T cells against self-antigens

C. Antibodies targeting antigens on cell surfaces

28. Graves disease is characterized by:

A. Autoantibodies against TSH receptor

B. Autoantibodies against extracellular matrix proteins

C. Circulating anti-nuclear factor (ANF)

29. Lipoxygenase induces:

A. Production of prostaglandins

B. Production of thromboxane A2

C. Production of leukotrienes

D. Release of arachidonic acid

30. Metaplasia is:

A. A type of neoplasia

B. A type of chronic inflammation

C. An alternation of cell size and number

D. An alteration of cell differentiation

31. IL-4 (2 answers):

A. Inhibits B cells

B. Inhibits phagocytes

C. Induces the alternative activation pathway in macrophages

D. Activates the complement system

E. Activates TH1 cells

32. Mast cell Activation induces:

A. A release of histamine and lipid mediators

B. Inhibition of neutrophil recruitment

C. Late phase reaction after exposure to allergens

D. IgE class switching in B cells

33. Key pathogenic mechanisms during septic shock are (2 answers):

A. Hypoglycemia and adrenal hyperfunction

B. Activation of coagulation and inhibition of fibrinolysis

C. Reduction of cytokine production

D. Endothelial activation

E. Metabolic abnormalities

34. PSGL-1: A. Mediates the transmigration step through endothelial junctions

B. Binds selectins and mediates leukocyte rolling during inflammation

C. Binds LFA-1 integring and mediates leukocyte arrest in blood vessels

D. Binds VCAM-1 and mediates leukocyte arrest under flow

35. Angiogenesis occurs during:

A. Wound healing

B. Acute inflammation

C. Myasthenia gravis

D. Platelet aggregation

02/02/2022

Lipoxygenase induces:

a. production of prostaglandins

b. production of thromboxane A2

c. production of leukotrienes

d. release of arachidonic acid

Dysplasia is:

a. an alteration of cell differentiation

b. an alteration of cell size and number

c. a type of chronic inflammation

d. a type of neoplasia

Type II hypersensibility is due to:

a. production of IgE against foreign antigens

b. autoreactive T cells against self-antigens

c. antibodies targeting antigens on cell surfaces

d. immune complexes, which deposit in blood vessel wall

Graves disease is characterized by:

a. autoantibodies against TSH receptor

b. autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptor

c. antibodies against extracellular matrix proteins

d. circulating anti-nuclear factor (ANF)

Metaplasia is:

a. a type of neoplasia

b. a type of chronic inflammation

c. an alteration of cell size and number

d. an alteration of cell differentiation

IL-4 (two answers):

a. Inhibits B cells

b. Inhibits phagocytosis

c. Induces the alternative activation pathway in macrophages

d. Activates the complement system

e. Activates Th1 cells

Mast cell activation induces:

a. release of histamine and lipid mediators

b. inhibition of neutrophil recruitment

c. late-phase reaction after exposure to allergens

d. IgE class switching in B cells

Key pathogenetic mechanisms during septic shock are (two answers):

a. Hypoglycemia and adrenal hyperfunction

b. Activation of coagulation and inhibition of fibrinolysis

c. Reduction of cytokine production

d. Endothelial activation

e. metabolic abnormalities

PSGL-1:

a. mediates the transmigration step through endothelial junctions

b. binds selectins and mediates leukocyte rolling during inflammation

c. binds LFA-1 integrin and mediates leukocyte arrest in blood vessels

d. binds VCAM-1 and mediates leukocyte arrest under flow

Angiogenesis occurs during:

a. wound healing

b. acute inflammation

c. myasthenia gravis

d. platelet aggregation

Macrophages:

a. Generate anaphylatoxins

b. Have prolonged ability to ingest microbes and tissue debris

c. Release histamine

d. Produce NETS

e. Produce major basic protein and kill helminths

Phlebothrombosis may be caused by:

a. rheumatic fever

b. atherosclerosis

c. severe trauma and burns

d. radiations

The resolution of inflammation occurs through the following mechanisms (two answers):

a. inhibition of production of pro-resolving lipid mediators

b. vagus nerve stimulation

c. production of pro-inflammatory cytokines

d. angiogenesis

e. clearance of neutrophils from the site of injury

Th2 cells and IL-4 may contribute to:

a. Inductioning of autoimmune diseases

b. Granuloma formation

c. Type II hypersensitivity

d. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions

IL-6:

a. Activates the complement system

b. Induces DNA mutations and tumor formation

c. Induces the synthesis of acute phase proteins

d. Induces the formation of Th2 cells

The activation of the fibrinolytic system requires:

a. Thrombomodulin

b. Plasminogen activator inhibitors

c. Alpha1-antitrypsin

d. Plasminogen activators

Epitope spreading (two answers):

a. is involved in tumor growth

b. is induced by IFNgamma

c. is involved in autoimmune diseases

d. is induced by IL-4

e. represents a diversification of the immune response

Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be induced by:

a. Severe endothelial injury

b. Hepatitis and cirrhosis

c. Bleeding

d. Chronic alcoholism

e. Fever

Leukocyte crawling:

a. In